CSSAT0211WBTT - Compellent Top Gun Storage Architect Technical v3 1013

1. True or False. When sizing using DPACK it is important to size for the business hour window = TRUE

2. True or False. Throughput is defined as the amount of bandwidth consumed in and out of the storage array = TRUE

3. What is a good rule of thumb for the amount of IOPS on a 15K drive? = 170

4. True or False. As soon as a replay is taken for a volume, the blocks that are part of that volume move to RAID 5 = FALSE

5. What type of page is frozen as read only when a Replay occurs? = Historical

6. True or False. There is no server agent required to run Data Progression. = TRUE

7. True or False. Thin Write technology transforms existing volumes on a legacy SAN into thinly provisioned volumes on the Storage Center. = TRUE

8. All volumes should use the Recommended Storage Profile except __________ = Powerpoint volumes

9. Which default Storage Profile optimizes Data Progression across all tiers? = Recommended

10. How many units of rack space is taken up by an SC8000? = 2U

11. In the storage industry what is considered a good average for latency? = 40ms or less

12. What are volume and server folders user for? = For organization and security

13. What is the maximum number of drives allowed on a 6Gb SAS chain connected to SC8000 controllers? = 168

14. A 500GB volume is created in Storage Center. How much physical disk space is consumed in the SAN? = 0GB

15. During testing of 6.3, starting with how many drives did engineering start to see improvements in performance? = 200

16. From what menu option in the Storage Center interface do you change to dual redundancy? = Highlight the Disk folder=>click Configure Storage

17. True or False. Synchronous replications created before updating to 6.3 will fail after the upgrade is completed = FALSE

18. True or False. Doing a Phone Home from Enterprise Manager sends the same information as doing a Phone Home from the Storage Center interface = FALSE

19. A consistency group is used to do what task? = Create a synchronized replay of all volumes within a consistency group.

20. Active Directory and LDAP are supported in what interface(s)? Select all that apply. = Storage Center GUI, All of the above

21. What is the minimum number of drives required on an SC280 enclosure? = 42

22. What RAID type is recommended for 7K drives 1TB or larger? = RAID 6

23. How much rack space does the SC280 dense enclosure take up? = 5U

24. What application is paused when a replay is created from a consistency group? = None of the above

25. True or False. When calculating IOPS needed, a general best practice is to design for the peak IOP number not the average. = TRUE

26. What is a simple equation often used to calculate available IOPS? = 100ms/(Seek + Latency)

27. True or False. A volume can only have one replay profile. = FALSE

28. True or False. A manual replay allows a user to create a replay at any time. = TRUE

29. True or False. SSD drives fit in both SC200 and SC220 enclosures. = TRUE

30. Which of the following are components of Fluid Data Architecture? = Intelligence

31. What Storage Center controller(s) support Active Directory and LDAP? Select all that apply. = SC8000, Series 30, All of the above

32. True or False. Dell Compellent recommends using multiple disk folders. One for each of your applications. = FALSE

33. True or False. With the flash optimized storage profile, data progression must be set up to automatically run every hour. = FALSE

34. Which of the following are causes of overhead in the Storage Center? Select all that apply. = Using FCOE on the front end, Using Cisco switches, Internal bottlenecks

35. When setting up Remote Data Instant Replay, what option is checked to only send actual changes to a page rather than the complete page to the DR site? = Transport type

36. What percent of the outside of the disk drives are reserved for the Fast Track application? = 20%

37. Between a Copy, Mirror or a Migrate which one is used most often? = Mirror

38. Which of the following are characteristics of SSD drives? Select all that apply. = High performance, Low Latency

39. What is the typical move time between tiers when Data Progression runs? = 10 days down, 2 days up

40. What is the feature in 6.3 called that allows movement of existing volumes between Storage Centers in Enterprise Manager? = Volume Advisor

41. When considering a server's throughput requirements, what calculation is used to calculate bandwidth? = Block size x overhead

42. What definition in Enterprise Manager determines the amount of bandwidth available to do a replication? = Pipe size Configurator

43. If individual drive capacities in a tier are greater than ________, best practice is to set the tier to Dual Redundancy. = 900GB

44. What is the minimum software version required to run a Storage Center with SC200 or SC220 enclosures? = 6.5

45. Which front end cabling solution uses Primary and Reserve ports? = Legacy mode

46. What is the sustained transfer rate of a 15K, 2 1/2 inch drive? = 122 - 160 MB/s

47. Where can existing replications be viewed? = Individual volume in Storage Center

48. True or False. A Windows server must have the server agent loaded on it and be registered in order to create volumes on it. = FALSE

49. What information can be “compared” from the comparison view in version 6.4 of Enterprise Manager? = All of the above

50. Where is the Data Collector downloaded from? = Knowledge Center on Compellent Partner Portal

51. An SC8000 controller has 7 PCIe slots to be used for IO cards. What type of slots are they? = 4 Low Profile and 3 Full Height slots

52. What privilege is NOT a valid privilege for a user created in Enterprise Manager? = Read Only

53. What transport type works best for replicating over long distances? = iSCSI

54. True or False. To implement Boot from SAN a server's boot order must be set to boot from the 

hard drive. = TRUE

55. What type of synchronous replication mode allows for writes to keep going from the host to the primary Storage Center even if the link between the Storage Centers has been disconnected? = High Anxiety

56. Which of the following are supported data bases for the Enterprise Manager Data Collector? Select all that apply. = MySQL, Oracle,

57. What is the name of Dell Compellent's Thin Provisioning solution? = Dynamic Capacity

58. What are the two main features of Live Volume? =QoS, Planned Maintenance Outages

59. What size drives are used on an SC280? = 4TB

60. True or False. With version 6.4, the Data Collector can automatically detect a directory server and configure the directory service settings accordingly. = TRUE

61. Select two ways of lowering the disk queue. = Increase the speed of the disk, increase the number of disks

62. True or False. On an SC8000 controller, the Eth0 port is used for controller management and the Eth1 port is used for iSCSI traffic. = FALSE

63. Seek time is defined as: = The amount of data that can be moved on or off the disk in a specified amount of time.

64. What type of SSDs are considered read intensive? = MLCs

65. What is the default parity for RAID 5 in the Storage Center? = 1

66. From a volume's point of view, what tab in the Storage Center interface allows a user to see how much Fast Track space is being used? = Replays

67. What are the 3 primary measurements of performance? = MB/s, IOPS & Latency

68. What must be done in the Enterprise Manager client in order to be able to manage a Storage 

Center? = Add the Storage Center

69. True or False. A primary or backup domain controller is not required to be on line during initial setup and configuration of Storage Center AD integration. = FALSE

70. True or False. When sizing using DPACK it is important to size for the business hour window. = FALSE

71. What existing tool in Enterprise Manager provides the information necessary to move an existing volume to another Storage Center? = Data Instant Replay

72. What can be set up to allow replays to be taken automatically? = Replay Profile

73. On the initial release of 6.4, what size are the read intensive SSD drives? = 3 TB

74. What Storage Center core software feature manages all physical disks as a single pool of storage? = Disk Virtualization

75. What happens to a volume's blocks when a Replay is taken? = The blocks are frozen as read only.

76. Using Virtual Ports mode, what zone(s) need to be created on the fibre channel switch? (select all that apply) = All Storage Center Physical WWNs, All Storage Center Virtual WWNs

77. True or False. Once a volume has been replicated over a Wide Area Network, it can't be converted to a Live Volume. = FALSE

78. From the IO Usage tab what types of output can be saved. Select all that apply. = CSV, WORD

79. What view from the volume level shows the amount of space available in each tier? = Statistics

80. True or False. Live volume works with both synchronous and asychronous replication types. = FALSE

81. True or False. Restore points need to be saved in order to restore a volume back to the source system with its original mapping, replay and Data Progression attributes. = FALSE

82. True or False. It's best practice to be sure to have replays for a Windows Pagefile. = FALSE

83. True or False. Consistency group software is licensed separately from Data Instant Replay software. = FALSE

84. What version of operating system is supported with Data Collector 6.3 - 32-bit, 64-bit or both? = 64-bit

85. Which of the following are types of Threshold definitions that can be set up in Enterprise Manager? (Select all that apply). = IO Usage, Storage, Replication

86. What version of SNMP is supported in SCOS 6.3? = Version 2c

87. True or False. To replicate data from one Storage Center to another using Portable Volume, both Storage Centers must be visible in Enterprise Manager. = TRUE

88. What the default data page size? = 128K

89. True or False. Both Dell and Xyratex enclosures come from the factory with the hard drives 

already installed. = FALSE

90. Which of the following are software components of Enterprise Manager? Select all that apply. = Enterprise Manager Client, Enterprise Manager Server Agent

91. How does the Storage Center label a recovered replay? = Replay

92. True or False. DPACK is a tool that collects data to help us make informed decisions. = TRUE

93. Which of the following information is accessed from the View link in the Storage Center interface? = Alert Monitor

94. True or False. The smaller the block the more bandwidth will be consumed. = FALSE

95. What information can be “compared” from the comparison view in version 6.4 of Enterprise Manager? = Storage Summary

96. What transport type works best for replicating over long distances? = iSCSI

97. True or False. Data Progression occurs only on physical disks within the same disk folder. = TRUE

98. True or False. Once a Storage Center is put into Manual mode, it can not be switched back to Normal mode. = TRUE

99. Which of the following are examples of how Data Progression and Data Instant Replay work together to optimize performance and storage usage in a Storage Center? = Minimize the overall system cost by needing less high speed drives.

100. From the DPACK report, what output measures the amount of time to process? = IOPS

101. Select two ways of lowering the disk queue. = Increase the speed of the disk, increase the number of disks

102. True or False. A good solution design focuses on the storage and what is connected to it. = FALSE

103. Which default Storage Profile optimizes Data Progression across all tiers? = Recommended

104. What existing tool in Enterprise Manager provides the information necessary to move an existing volume to another Storage Center? = Threshold definition

105. What is the typical move time between tiers when Data Progression runs? = 12 days down, 3 days up

106. Which of the following are supported data bases for the Enterprise Manager Data Collector? Select all that apply. = MySQL, SQL Server

107. What view from the volume level shows the amount of space available in each tier? = Statistics

108. True or False. The flash optimized solution can only be installed on a Storage Center with SC8000 controllers? = TRUE

109. Which of the following are causes of overhead in the Storage Center? Select all that apply. = Using FCOE on the front end, Using Cisco switches